firekeeper said on
>- and, unless there is impirical evidence (MRI, CTscan, etc) that that the tumor diminishes after energy work and in the absence of other modalities one still cannot assert anything definite about the effectiveness of the work
>
Just curious here. Why would it have to be "in the absence of other modalities?" If there were an empirical difference between "chemo alone" and "chemo + energy work," why do you think that wouldn't be definite enough?
Bruce
